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Tie rod / ball joint question

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Old 04-30-2011, 07:04 PM
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Charley Hoyt
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Default Tie rod / ball joint question

I am in the process of changing the transverse springs and shocks in my car. I purchased the GM / Kent Moore tool for seperating the tie rod ball joint, and it worked great. My question is regarding torquing on reassembly....The manual says to do a first pass torque at 15 ft/lbs, second pass of 160 degrees, then a third pass torque of 45 ft/lbs. What is the logic behind this sequence? Is this how everyone does it?

Thanks for the help,

Charley
Old 05-01-2011, 11:58 AM
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UstaB-GS549
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I think it has to do with the taper on the shaft. Too much torque will expand the hole in the upright.

15 ft-lb probably takes all the clearance out of the joint.

160 degrees (Turn-of-the-nut method) give a precise load that is not affected by lube etc. on the stud.

33 ft-lb. is a double check. (Service manual says 45 Nm)

I just did mine yesterday.
Old 05-01-2011, 12:20 PM
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Charley Hoyt
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Originally Posted by UstaB-GS549
I think it has to do with the taper on the shaft. Too much torque will expand the hole in the upright.

15 ft-lb probably takes all the clearance out of the joint.

160 degrees (Turn-of-the-nut method) give a precise load that is not affected by lube etc. on the stud.

33 ft-lb. is a double check. (Service manual says 45 Nm)

I just did mine yesterday.
Thanks.

I just double checked my manual, and confirmed that the third pass for the C6 (in the 2008 manual) is 45 ft lbs (60Nm). Is the torque you refferenced for a C5 or C4?

Thanks again for the help.

Charley
Old 05-01-2011, 01:57 PM
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davidfarmer
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that is actually one place I don't torque, simply because the load is in sheer, not in tension. Torque shouldn't effect the actual strength of the joint.

I just snug them up

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