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Power train loss HP vs Torque

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Old 04-30-2016, 12:25 PM
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Mike's LS3
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Default Power train loss HP vs Torque

You always hear power train loss for horsepower, whether it's 12% for manuals or 15% for autos between flywheel and rear wheels. Without getting into a percentage debate, is power train loss for torque at the rear wheels the same?

For example:

500 flywheel HP for manual = 440 hp at rear wheels (12% loss )

500 flywheel ft. lbs. torque for manual. What is the power train loss for torque at the wheels?

Last edited by Mike's LS3; 04-30-2016 at 01:00 PM.
Old 04-30-2016, 12:32 PM
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CMY SIX
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yes! last time on the dyno 381 rwhp 379 tq they will stay very close to one another I think a boosted motor will get a slightly higher TQ reading?
Old 04-30-2016, 12:51 PM
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extrapilot
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I think you want to reverse your numbers in you example for HP.
Old 04-30-2016, 12:57 PM
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Mike's LS3
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Originally Posted by extrapilot
I think you want to reverse your numbers in you example for HP.

Sorry, fixed now.
Old 04-30-2016, 08:38 PM
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C U IN REARVEIW
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Driveline loss should be a constant/set amount right (ie: 12% manuals)? So if you double the power of the engine....the Driveline doesn't turn twice as hard..... it still only takes the "said amount" to move the car forward. So I don't understand why it stated that Driveline loss is (12%) of any HP??


Example: if Driveline loss at 500hp is 60hp......then a 1000hp doesn't loss 120hp.....it is moving the same components....

Last edited by C U IN REARVEIW; 04-30-2016 at 08:44 PM.
Old 04-30-2016, 09:41 PM
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Originally Posted by C U IN REARVEIW
Driveline loss should be a constant/set amount right (ie: 12% manuals)? So if you double the power of the engine....the Driveline doesn't turn twice as hard..... it still only takes the "said amount" to move the car forward. So I don't understand why it stated that Driveline loss is (12%) of any HP??


Example: if Driveline loss at 500hp is 60hp......then a 1000hp doesn't loss 120hp.....it is moving the same components....
Correct, the loss is constant. The 12 % loss is from the manufacturers rating. Not what I'm asking. I'm asking if the manufacturer rated an engine with 500 ft lbs. of torque, what would be the torque rating at the wheels of a manual? 12% loss also?

Last edited by Mike's LS3; 04-30-2016 at 09:44 PM.
Old 05-01-2016, 10:04 AM
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My experience with dyno runs and tuning shows the tq loss to be just about parallel with the hp loss.

Within a 1% anyway.

Now this is not taking into account big power modes at least not past the usual bolt ons.

So at 500 flywheel hp your rwtq would be around 440.
Old 05-01-2016, 03:21 PM
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Originally Posted by Boomer111
My experience with dyno runs and tuning shows the tq loss to be just about parallel with the hp loss.

Within a 1% anyway.

Now this is not taking into account big power modes at least not past the usual bolt ons.

So at 500 flywheel hp your rwtq would be around 440.
You mean at 500 flywheel torque rwtq would be around 440.

That's about what I figured, but you never hear about torque loss through the drive train, only horsepower loss.

Thanks Boomer!
Old 05-01-2016, 03:40 PM
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RicardoFors68
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I'm about two posts away from being confused and lost....
Old 05-01-2016, 08:42 PM
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Originally Posted by RicardoFors68
I'm about two posts away from being confused and lost....
Let me simplify the answer:

1. Take a stock manual LS3 rated at the flywheel with 436 hp and 428 ft.lb torque.
2. Put the car on the dyno.
3. Dyno readings for a stock 6 speed manual LS3 will read about 12% less for both horsepower and torque at the wheels.

Last edited by Mike's LS3; 05-01-2016 at 08:53 PM.
Old 05-01-2016, 09:17 PM
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Default Parasitic losses...

The fallowing is actual flywheel numbers for same engine max torque 695.3 max power 659.6
Chassis dyno numbers for same engine torque 604.6 power 573.6

Above car N/A A6 transmission about 13% torque loss and about 13% loss of horse power.

I have a supercharged motor made 1,110 torque to the crank and 940 to the tires but is not a corvette and different cars seem to have different losses true the drive train.
Old 05-01-2016, 10:23 PM
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SladeX
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Drivetrain loss is not a set number ie. it only takes 60 HP to overcome drivetrain loss. That is incorrect.

Drivetrain loss is because mass takes energy to accelerate, and to increase the acceleration rate of any given mass, the larger the amount of energy is required to accelerate that mass.

So take the drive train loss of a 638hp car and compare the drive train loss of a 500hp car. Look up zr1 vs z06 dyno numbers and you will find a much larger drivetrain loss on the zr1 despite having lighter rotors on the rear brakes reducing the "drivetrain" mass a bit.

This is why % drivetrain loss is a "rule of thumb" concept which can apply VERY loosely.
Old 05-01-2016, 10:24 PM
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hippy
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Originally Posted by C U IN REARVEIW
Driveline loss should be a constant/set amount right (ie: 12% manuals)? So if you double the power of the engine....the Driveline doesn't turn twice as hard..... it still only takes the "said amount" to move the car forward. So I don't understand why it stated that Driveline loss is (12%) of any HP??


Example: if Driveline loss at 500hp is 60hp......then a 1000hp doesn't loss 120hp.....it is moving the same components....

So by that logic if I would hook a 59hp motor up to your hypothetical drive train then that 59hp motor wouldn't turn the drive train? Doubtful. IMO the faster you try to turn something the more resistance it gives you and takes more hp to turn. I don't buy the flat hp loss from drive train argument.
Old 05-01-2016, 10:37 PM
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SladeX
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I'll just toss in F=ma or rather a = F/m.

F -> Force
m -> mass
a ->acceleration

To look at this in the simplest terms, a is acceleration which is linked to hp. If you want to increase your accleration/hp value, then more force is needed, they go hand in hand. So the force needed to accelerate the mass of the drivetrain goes up hand in hand with the acceleration increase you are going for.

So you want the car to go faster in a quicker (shorten the time to cover the same distance ie 1/4 mile) then the requirements to accelerate EVERYTHING, including spinning a driveshaft/wheels etc go up hand in hand.
Old 05-02-2016, 09:11 AM
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Slade is right. It takes more energy to spin something up faster
Old 05-02-2016, 10:57 AM
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Remember that torque is nothing more than horsepower at a given rpm (or vice versa, if you prefer). In fact a dyno measures torque and rpm, and uses a formula to show corresponding horsepower.

So in a sense torque and horsepower are the same thing, and therefore would show the same driveline loss.
Old 05-02-2016, 05:31 PM
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Originally Posted by John Harry
Remember that torque is nothing more than horsepower at a given rpm (or vice versa, if you prefer). In fact a dyno measures torque and rpm, and uses a formula to show corresponding horsepower.

So in a sense torque and horsepower are the same thing, and therefore would show the same driveline loss.
Interesting, this is the answer I was looking for when I posted the thread.

I did not want to get into a drivetrain loss % debate, but rather how the dyno measures both horsepower and torque.

Thanks to all who replied and sorry to those who were confused.

Last edited by Mike's LS3; 05-02-2016 at 05:34 PM.
Old 05-02-2016, 08:34 PM
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OP, the calculation:

hp = torque * rpm / 5252

The Dyno measures torque and wheel/engine speed, horsepower is calculated from that.
So any drivetrain loss was measured as reduced wheel torque and caries through into the computed horsepower.
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Old 05-02-2016, 10:04 PM
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Originally Posted by Suds
OP, the calculation:

hp = torque * rpm / 5252

The Dyno measures torque and wheel/engine speed, horsepower is calculated from that.
So any drivetrain loss was measured as reduced wheel torque and caries through into the computed horsepower.
Awesome! Learn something new every day on this forum!

Last edited by Mike's LS3; 05-02-2016 at 10:05 PM.

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