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Old Apr 21, 2008 | 11:40 AM
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Default Quick question...

Can anyone give me a quick summary of the difference between '04 C5 Z06 shocks and C6 Z06 shocks??:o

Thanks from the ignorant one

-Ed
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Old Apr 21, 2008 | 12:51 PM
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Default C5 Z06 vs. C6 Z06 Shocks

Ed,

The difference between them are very minor. In rebound, above 3.5 in/sec, the C6 Z06 shocks have more dampening. At 10 in/sec the difference in rebound dampening is about 80 lbs. The compression curves look identical, given production tolerances.

Both shocks feature a digressive compression and rebound curve, both have the same gas pressure and both have bad hysteresis.

So I guess the short answer to your question is, they are almost identical C6Z has slightly more high speed rebound dampening.

Hope this is what you were after. Please let me know if there is anything else that I can help with.
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Old Apr 21, 2008 | 02:58 PM
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WOW! your not going to get a better answer than that

Josh what is "bad hysteresis" exactly. Thanks
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Old Apr 21, 2008 | 03:25 PM
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Josh, great answer, that means to me that it for sure isn't worth the extra $100+ for the '04 shocks when C6s can be had much cheaper. A little more rebound damping would be appreciated, the stock ones at 125 pulling away from a carrera S on a curve are a little more fun than I am up for any more.

Hysteresis for a VERY summarized definition is lag. MR shocks are faster, but....

Thanks for the help
-Ed
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Old Apr 28, 2008 | 01:05 PM
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Originally Posted by 03QuicksilverZ06
WOW! your not going to get a better answer than that

Josh what is "bad hysteresis" exactly. Thanks
Hysteresis is shock terms means that during piston acceleration and piston deceleration the shock force output is not the same. A perfect shock would have no hysteresis, so acceleration and deceleration graphs would be the same.

Fairly complicated but, for average racer it means poor shock performance.
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Old Apr 28, 2008 | 03:54 PM
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Originally Posted by JoshS
Hysteresis is shock terms means that during piston acceleration and piston deceleration the shock force output is not the same. A perfect shock would have no hysteresis, so acceleration and deceleration graphs would be the same.

Fairly complicated but, for average racer it means poor shock performance.
Really ?????

How come these guys offer a different definition ????

http://www.roehrigengineering.com/ca...0Balancing.pdf

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Old Apr 28, 2008 | 05:14 PM
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Originally Posted by 03QuicksilverZ06
Josh what is "bad hysteresis" exactly.
I got that in college from this exchange student and had to take penicillin for a month.

The more - subjective feedback - I've gotten from folks running tracks like Roebling is the '04 shocks (on an otherwise stock suspension C5Z) "felt" better than the C6Z shocks, and on the street felt about the same. I mention the track as different venues tend to bring out different characterstics in suspension setups.

Again, this was just the subjective impression from a couple of folks that tried both. I suppose there's a touch of logic in that the C5 shocks were designed for use on the C5 with it's combination of weight, swaybars, spring rates, etc.

Some nice info in this thread though - personally I think the OP should skip the OEM shocks and get some Pfadt Coilovers
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Old Apr 30, 2008 | 09:39 AM
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Originally Posted by BlackZ06
Really ?????

How come these guys offer a different definition ????

http://www.roehrigengineering.com/ca...0Balancing.pdf

It is saying the same thing. It is just stated differently.
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